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[Nov 28, 2025] Fully Updated Free Actual CompTIA DS0-001 Exam Questions [Q16-Q33]

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[Nov 28, 2025] Fully Updated Free Actual CompTIA DS0-001 Exam Questions

Free DS0-001 Questions for CompTIA DS0-001 Exam [Nov-2025]

Q16. Which of the following NoSQL database types best categorizes MongoDB?

Document

Column-oriented

Graph

Key-value stores

The NoSQL database type that best categorizes MongoDB is document. Document databases are databases that store and manage data as documents, which are collections of fields and values in formats such as JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) or XML (Extensible Markup Language). Document databases do not use any schema or structure to organize data, but rather use identifiers or indexes to enable flexible and dynamic access to data based on fields or values.
Document databases are suitable for storing large amounts of complex or unstructured data that have variable attributes or nested structures. MongoDB is an example of a document database that uses JSON-like documents to store and query data. The other options are either different types of NoSQL databases or not related to NoSQL databases at all. For example, column- oriented databases are databases that store and manage data as columns rather than rows; graph databases are databases that store and manage data as nodes and edges that represent entities and relationships; key-value stores are databases that store and manage data as pairs of keys and values.

Q17. A security auditor at an organization wants to compile a list of individuals who have access to the database and their roles. Which of the following is the best source of information about an organization’s access control requirements?

System security plan

Incident response protocol

Disaster recovery document

Data dictionary

The system security plan details access control policies and user roles, providing comprehensive information about who has database access and their permissions.

Q18. Which of the following are logical infrastructure security measures? (Choose two.)

Firewall

Strong passwords

Key cards

Port security

Camera systems

Time locks

Firewalls and strong passwords are logical security measures that protect digital infrastructure by controlling access and authentication.

Q19. Which of the following is an advantage of creating indexes?

To help with space allocation

To provide quick and efficient access to data

To reduce memory

To update the query plan

The advantage of creating indexes is to provide quick and efficient access to data. An index is a data structure that stores the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order, along with pointers to the corresponding rows in the table. An index helps to speed up queries that search, filter, sort, or join data based on the indexed columns, as it reduces the number of disk accesses or scans required to locate the desired data. An index also helps to enforce uniqueness or referential integrity constraints on the indexed columns. The other options are either not true or not relevant for this purpose. For example, an index does not help with space allocation, as it consumes additional space in the database; an index does not reduce memory, as it may use memory for caching or buffering purposes; an index does not update the query plan, as it is an input or a factor for the query optimizer to generate the query plan. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Q20. As part of an integrity check, a database administrator is creating both the primary and secondary snapshots. The database administrator notices the primary replica is failing over to the secondary replica. Which of the following describes how this will affect the database?

All the data will have to be copied to a new primary snapshot.

The database will not be impacted.

The database will shut down unexpectedly.

All the information in the database will be lost.

Failover from a primary to a secondary replica in a properly configured environment is designed to be seamless, maintaining database availability and integrity without impacting operations.

Q21. A data analyst would like to select only one copy of each of the duplicated regions in the chart below:

Which of the following SQL commands should the data analyst use to complete this task?

SELECT COUNT()

SELECT UNIQUE

SELECT DISTINCT

SELECT DIFFERENT

The SELECT DISTINCT command retrieves unique values from a column, allowing the analyst to select only one copy of each duplicated region.

Q22. A database administrator is migrating the information in a legacy table to a newer table. Both tables contain the same columns, and some of the data may overlap.
Which of the following SQL commands should the administrator use to ensure that records from the two tables are not duplicated?

UNION

JOIN

IINTERSECT

CROSS JOIN

The SQL command that the administrator should use to ensure that records from the two tables are not duplicated is option A. This command uses the UNION clause to combine the records from the legacy table and the newer table into a single result set. The UNION clause also eliminates any duplicate records that may exist in both tables, and sorts the result by default. The other options either do not produce the desired result or have syntax errors. For example, option B would join the records from the two tables based on a common column, but not remove any duplicates; option C would return only the records that are common to both tables, but not the ones that are unique to each table; option D would produce a Cartesian product of the records from the two tables, which would increase the number of duplicates. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Q23. A group of developers needs access to a database in a development environment, but the database contains sensitive data. Which of the following should the database administrator do before giving the developers access to the environment?

Audit access to tables with sensitive data.

Remove sensitive data from tables.

Mask the sensitive data.

Encrypt connections to the development environment.

The database administrator should mask the sensitive data before giving the developers access to the environment. Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious but realistic data, such as random numbers or characters, to protect it from unauthorized access or exposure. Data masking preserves the format and structure of the original data, but does not reveal its actual value. This allows developers to work with realistic data without compromising its confidentiality or compliance. The other options are either insufficient or excessive for this scenario. For example, auditing access to tables with sensitive data may help monitor and track who accesses the data, but does not prevent it from being seen; removing sensitive data from tables may compromise the quality or completeness of the data, and may not be feasible if there is a large amount of data; encrypting connections to the development environment may protect the data in transit, but not at rest or in use.

Q24. A business analyst is using a client table and an invoice table to create a database view that shows clients who have not made purchases yet. Which of the following joins is most appropriate for the analyst to use to create this database view?

LEFT JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key

RIGHT JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key WHERE BY Client.Key IS NULL

LEFT JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key WHERE BY Invoice.Key IS NULL

INNER JOIN ON Client.Key = Invoice.Key

The join that is most appropriate for the analyst to use to create this database view is option D.
This join uses the LEFT JOIN clause to combine the client table and the invoice table based on the matching values in the Key column. The WHERE clause filters out the rows where the Invoice.Key column is not null, meaning that the client has made a purchase. The result is a view that shows only the clients who have not made any purchases yet. The other options either do not produce the desired result or have syntax errors. For example, option A would show only the clients who have made purchases, option B would show only the invoices that do not have a matching client, and option C would show all the clients regardless of their purchase status.

Q25. Which of the following services is responsible for assigning, managing, and reclaiming IP addresses on a TCP/IP-based network?

DNS

DHCP

LDAP

SMTP

The service that is responsible for assigning, managing, and reclaiming IP addresses on a TCP/IP-based network is DHCP. DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, is a service that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters, such as subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc., to computers or devices on a network. DHCP helps simplify the administration and management of IP addresses on a network, as well as avoid conflicts or errors caused by manual or duplicate assignments. DHCP also allows computers or devices to release or renew their IP addresses when they join or leave the network. The other options are either different services or not related to IP addresses at all. For example, DNS, or Domain Name System, is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa; LDAP, or Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is a service that provides access to directory information such as users, groups, or devices on a network; ISMTP is not a valid acronym or service.

Q26. A company wants to deploy a new application that will distribute the workload to five different database instances. The database administrator needs to ensure that, for each copy of the database, users are able to read and write data that will be synchronized across all of the instances.
Which of the following should the administrator use to achieve this objective?

[Peer-to-peer replication

Failover clustering

Log shipping

Availability groups

The administrator should use peer-to-peer replication to achieve this objective. Peer-to-peer replication is a type of replication that allows data to be distributed across multiple database instances that are equal partners, or peers. Each peer can read and write data that will be synchronized across all peers. This provides high availability, scalability, and load balancing for the application. The other options are either not suitable for this scenario or do not support bidirectional data synchronization. For example, failover clustering provides high availability but does not distribute the workload across multiple instances; log shipping provides disaster recovery but does not allow writing data to secondary instances; availability groups provide high availability and read-only access to secondary replicas but do not support peer-to-peer replication. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement replication of database management systems.

Q27. A server administrator wants to analyze a database server’s disk throughput. Which of the following should the administrator measure?

RPfvl

Latency

IOPS

Reads

The factor that the administrator should measure to analyze a database server’s disk throughput is IOPS. IOPS, or Input/Output Operations Per Second, is a metric that measures the number of read and write operations that a disk can perform in one second. IOPS indicates the performance or speed of a disk and how well it can handle multiple requests or transactions. Higher IOPS means higher disk throughput and lower latency. IOPS can be affected by various factors, such as disk type, size, speed, cache, RAID level, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, RPfvl is not a valid acronym or metric; latency is the time delay between a request and a response; reads are the number of read operations performed by a disk. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, monitor database performance.

Q28. Which of the following should a company develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center?

Deployment plan

Backup plan

Data retention policy

Disaster recovery plan

The document that a company should develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center is a disaster recovery plan. A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its operations in the event of a disaster or disruption, such as fire, flood, earthquake, cyberattack, etc. A disaster recovery plan typically includes the following elements: – The objectives and scope of the plan – The roles and responsibilities of the staff involved – The identification and assessment of the risks and impacts – The strategies and procedures for restoring the critical functions and data – The resources and tools required for the recovery process – The testing and maintenance schedule for the plan A disaster recovery plan helps an organization to minimize the damage and downtime caused by a disaster, as well as to resume normal operations as soon as possible. The other options are either different types of documents or not specific to fire preparedness. For example, a deployment plan is a document that describes how a system or software will be installed or launched; a backup plan is a document that specifies how data will be copied and stored for backup purposes; a data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept and when it should be deleted or archived.

Q29. Which of the following database structures is a type of NoSQL database?

Hierarchical

Key-value stores

Cloud

Object-oriented

The database structure that is a type of NoSQL database is key-value stores. Key-value stores are databases that store and manage data as pairs of keys and values. Keys are unique identifiers that locate data in the database; values are arbitrary data that can be any type or format. Key-value stores do not use any schema or structure to organize data, but rather use hash tables or indexes to enable fast and simple access to data based on keys. Key-value stores are suitable for storing large amounts of simple or unstructured data that do not require complex queries or relationships. The other options are either different types of databases or not related to database structures at all. For example, hierarchical databases are databases that store and manage data as nodes in a tree-like structure; cloud databases are databases that are hosted and accessed over the internet using cloud computing services; object-oriented databases are databases that store and manage data as objects that have attributes and methods.

Q30. Which of the following commands is part of DDL?

UPDATE

GRANT

CREATE

INSERT

The command that is part of DDL is CREATE. CREATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DDL, or Data Definition Language. DDL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to define or modify the structure or schema of a database, such as tables, columns, constraints, indexes, views, etc. CREATE is a DDL command that is used to create a new object in a database, such as a table, column, constraint, index, view, etc. For example, the following statement uses the CREATE command to create a new table called employee with four columns:
CREATE TABLE employee (
emp_id INT PRIMARY KEY,
emp_name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,
emp_dept VARCHAR(20),
emp_salary DECIMAL(10,2)
);
Copy
The other options are either part of different categories of SQL commands or not SQL commands at all. For example, UPDATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language. DML is a subset of SQL commands that are used to manipulate or modify the data or content of a database, such as inserting, updating, deleting, or selecting data.
GRANT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DCL, or Data Control Language. DCL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage the access or permissions of users or roles on a database, such as granting or revoking privileges or roles. INSERT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language. INSERT is a DML command that is used to insert new data into a table.

Q31. A database administrator is creating a table, which will contain customer data, for an online business. Which of the following SQL syntaxes should the administrator use to create an object?

The SQL syntax that the administrator should use to create an object is option B. This syntax uses the CREATE TABLE statement to define a new table named customer with four columns: customer_id, name, email, and phone. Each column has a data type and a constraint, such as NOT NULL or PRIMARY KEY. The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect keywords, or do not specify the table name or columns correctly. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

Q32. A database administrator needs to ensure that a newly installed corporate business intelligence application can access the company’s transactional data. Which of the following tasks should the administrator perform first?

Create a new service account exclusively for the business intelligence application.

Build a separate data warehouse customized to the business intelligence application’s specifications.

Set up a nightly FTP data transfer from the database server to the business intelligence application server.

Send the business intelligence administrator the approved TNS names file to configure the data mapping.

Open a new port on the database server exclusively for the business intelligence application.

The first task that the administrator should perform is to create a new service account exclusively for the business intelligence application. This will ensure that the application has the appropriate permissions and credentials to access the company’s transactional data. The other options are either unnecessary, inefficient, or insecure. For example, building a separate data warehouse would require additional resources and time, setting up a nightly FTP data transfer would expose the data to potential breaches, sending the TNS names file would not guarantee that the application can connect to the database, and opening a new port on the database server would create a vulnerability for attackers.

Q33. Following a security breach, a database administrator needs to ensure users cannot change data unless a request is approved by the management team. Which of the following principles addresses this issue?

Open access

Least resistance

Elevated privilege

Least privilege

The principle that addresses this issue is least privilege. Least privilege is a security principle that states that users should only have the minimum level of access or permissions required to perform their tasks or roles. By applying this principle, the administrator can ensure that users cannot change data unless they have been authorized by the management team through a request approval process. This prevents unauthorized or accidental modifications of data that may compromise its integrity or security. The other options are either opposite or unrelated to this principle. For example, open access means that users have unrestricted access to data; least resistance means that users have the easiest or most convenient access to data; elevated privilege means that users have higher or more permissions than they need. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.1 Given a scenario, apply security principles and best practices for databases.

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